This should be the focus, not PJ running on the field. If that's ruled part of the play, the Gophers still have the ball and have a chance at points. That was an enormous call and I don't remember ever seeing it ruled that way before.
It was a dead ball foul and either way it’s Iowa’s ballThis should be the focus, not PJ running on the field. If that's ruled part of the play, the Gophers still have the ball and have a chance at points. That was an enormous call and I don't remember ever seeing it ruled that way before.
Correct.I disagree, it’s a late hit. We have/had the ball. The penalty results in that play earning a first down. Makes no sense based on how it’s officiated every other time.
So if a QB is hit late, and the ball is still fluttering through the air, it would be a late hit?On 4th down, it hinges on whether the penalty occurred during the play or after the play (post-possession).
This exactly how I assumed it would have been called, but what the hell do I know? I thought the expired time clock against Penn State should have been reviewed.Should have been a personal foul on IA and a first down, then a Unsportsmanlike on PJ and march us 15 back. MN first down at the 22. We made many many mistakes but that one is on them.
If they're both post possession, why weren't the two penalties offsetting? Why sequential? I'm still befuddled on that one.The officials ruled both fouls were post-possession, which in this case meant it was after the whistle on a fourth down incompletion. Think of an illegal block on a QB after an interception, that is no longer a roughing the passer penalty, penalty is enforced but possession change still stands.
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If the first play falls under roughing the passer, then it would be auto 1st down.Correct.
Pittsburgh would have gotten a first down after Garrett hit Rudolph regardless of when the ball hit the ground. We got effed. Much like the spot that was six feet off.
That is actually the example in the NCAA rulebook. Ball turnover then the penalty is assessed.I would wonder if a late hit out of bounds on 4th down where the runner is out of bounds before the line to gain would result in a first down or turn over on downs then asses the penalty.
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The announcers were Aggie Vision on ESPNI was at the game, so this confused me. The official called unsportsmanlike conduct on both teams, not a personal foul on Iowa. I figured it was because the DB taunted or said something to Johnson, not because of the hit (which was clearly egregious). Did the announcers talk about this at all?
In this case, the two fouls occurred in a clearly distinguished order. They were separated by significant time. In most cases, the distance of the penalty enforced was different. The Iowa yards were half the distance to the goal. The Minnesota penalty was the standard 15 yards. Location of the foul determined length.If they're both post possession, why weren't the two penalties offsetting? Why sequential? I'm still befuddled on that one.